Over the weekend I had lunch with a male friend.
We were discussing a rape allegation that is currently before the courts.
It concerned a young woman who went out drinking with a group of friends on a Saturday night. She met a man at a club. When the night ended, they got into a taxi together and went back to her place. She passed out, and later woke up to the man having intercourse with her.
My friend abruptly put down his fork, and looked at me perplexed.
“Wait, how is that rape?” He asked.
“If two people go home together drunk, isn’t the consent, like, implicit?”
Genuinely confused, I responded “Wait…what? Someone can be too incapacitated to express consent, and the absence of a ‘no’ doesn’t mean ‘yes’.”
If you need some help, here is a penis and vagina talking us through consent. Post continues below.
He went on “But I’ve never said to a girl ‘Hi, do you consent to intercourse right now?’ That’s not how it works. Does that make me a rapist?”
I was dumbfounded. Could it be that a 25-year-old university educated, generally progressive guy, does not know what constitutes rape?
Top Comments
So if they are both drunk/high the girl is NOT at fault because her
intoxicated brain in incapable of rationalizing consent, but the man IS at fault because his intoxicated brain SHOULD be able to rationalize
consent... makes PERFECT sense...
It happens in marriage as well.